From: Michael C. Popovich (mpopovich@xxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sat Feb 09 2002 - 19:02:06 GMT-3
I understand your confusion and probably would have initially
interpreted it the same.
However, if you look at the overall lab you see that OSPF is the only
IGP protocol and the instructions are under the section OSPF and
Frame-relay Configuration. After taking a double take and reading
carefully you will see that the objective wants you to configure OSPF on
R1 with a multipoint NBMA and a point-to-point setup. It implies that
Area 0 is the frame-relay network. Not to mention that you will have to
ASBR's from the same backbone at first glance. I have not done this lab
yet.
It is unclear and ambiguous. I can't say if that is how it really is on
the lab. You definitely have to be in the habit of making sure the
instructions are read carefully. If you don't fully understand something
you can always ask the proctor. The worst thing they could say is ,"I
can't tell you that."
MP
-----Original Message-----
From: Carl Phelan [mailto:carlphelan@hotmail.com]
Sent: Saturday, February 09, 2002 3:25 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Solie - Darth Reid - Lab 2
Hi All,
In the 'Darth Reid' lab in Solie's CCIE practical Studies book, the
directions
are as follows:
'R1, R3 and R4 should share the same subnet. Configure OSPF Area 0
between
the routers; do not change the 'ip ospf network' type when configuring
OSPF'.
This to me says place these 3 routers in to OSPF area 0, right? Wrong!
The
solution includes R2 in area 0 as well - although it is a member router
of the
frame, the directions as I read them imply that only the 3 routers
stated are
part of Area 0. I know that the instructions in the real lab itself
can be
ambiguous and are open to interpretation but am I being unreasonable in
my
interpretation of this instruction? Could the real lab possibly be as
ambiguous as this? I would appreciate your interpretation of this
instruction.
Many thanks,
Carl
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