From: Rick Burts (burts@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sun Jun 10 2001 - 10:22:47 GMT-3
David
I hope it was an error in typing the config into your message but you
have the same IP address configured on both routers.
You should get the results you want dialing from R1 to R2 and no dialing
from R2 to R1 (no dial string on R2) if you successfully configure
authentication. Without authentication the receiving router needs to
dial a call to send the response, therefore needing a dial string.
Rick
Rick Burts, CCSI CCIE 4615 burts@mentortech.com
Mentor Technologies 240-568-6500 ext 6652
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On Wed, 6 Jun 2001, David Anderson wrote:
> I have also ran into something interesting in the last couple of
> days....with only 2 weeks left from today until D-day
> I am using dialer map statements on my calling and receiving routers and
> have an interesting problem. On my calling router I have the following:
> R1---calling router
> int bri 0
> ip address 133.1.100.5 255.255.255.252
> encap ppp
> dialer map ip 133.1.100.6 name router2 broadcast 5552222
> dialer-group 1
>
> dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit
>
> R2----receiving router
> int bri 0
> ip address 133.1.100.5 255.255.255.252
> encap ppp
> dialer map ip 133.1.100.5 name router1 broadcast
> dialer-group 1
>
> dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit
>
> When I use the above configs the calling router is not able to ping the
> remote router. However if I add a dial string to the end of the dialer map
> on the receiving router the ping works fine. This is not what I am after
> though. I do not want to the receiving router to have a dial string,
> because I don't want it to be able to initiate a call.
> Any suggestions?
>
> Any input is appreciated.
> Thanks,
> David
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