From: Chuck Larrieu (chuck@xxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sun May 27 2001 - 20:01:21 GMT-3
Lets consider this purely from the packet / forwarding process standpoint.
An IP packet contains a source address and a destination address. A router
receives a packet, examines the destination address, checks its forwarding
base, and forwards the packet out the interface closest to the destination
address. If that destination address is directly connected, all the better.
In terms of the forwarding base, the router doesn't care whether it is part
of OSPF area 0, or whether the entry is a static route. It doesn't care if
the packet originated from an OSPF router whose area assignment was not
directly connected to Area 0. All it cares about is that there is a route in
the forwarding base.
RFC 1812 specifies how a router behaves. Packet in. examine destination
address, determine the next hop. Packet out. That's all.
Make sense?
Chuck
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of ANDY
NWEBUBE
Sent: Thursday, May 24, 2001 11:55 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Virtual Links
Guys,
I wonder if their is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
The scenario was something like this:
________ _______ _______
|Area 0| |Area1| |Area2|
| R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
|______| |_____| |_____|
There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has to
use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area 1)
to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actuall flow just to R1 from
R2.
I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the archives.
Quite interesting issues.
Regards,
Andy
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