From: ANDY NWEBUBE (wizdata@xxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sun May 27 2001 - 16:05:36 GMT-3
Hi guys,
I agree with your explanation Curtis. It makes sense that traffic between
the two routers will be direct as they are -according to the design in
question- directly connected.
But I also agree with Eugine when it comes to Virtual-Links. Virtual-links
are a kind of Tunnel in terms of the usage applied. As long as the ABR in
Area 2 is connected to the ABR in area 1 to "virtually" reach Area 0, to
provide the routing information, then it is a Virtual/Tunnel connection.
Regards,
Andy
>From: eugeneonline <eugeneonline@yahoo.com>
>Reply-To: eugeneonline <eugeneonline@yahoo.com>
>To: Curtis Call <curtiscall@home.com>, ANDY NWEBUBE <wizdata@hotmail.com>
>CC: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: Re: Virtual Links
>Date: Sun, 27 May 2001 10:38:40 -0700 (PDT)
>
> Hi Curtis,
>RFC states that all OSPF areas must be connected to area 0. A virtual link
>provides a transparent connection through another area (which must itself
>be connected to area 0) to area 0. This kind of 'virtual connection'
>concept is known as tunnelling; same as DLSW, IPX, IP over IP, VOIP
>tunnels.
>Regards,
>Eugene
>Curtis Call <curtiscall@home.com> wrote: Traffic from R2 to R1 will go
>directly from R2 to R1. Remember that in
>order to have R2 be a virtual link it will have an interface in Area 1,
>therefore to reach any destination in Area 1 it will always use the
>intra-area route. Besides, Virtual Links are not tunnels, you can't
>transport traffic over them, they just carry routing information, the
>traffic still goes hop by hop throughout the OSPF domain.
>
>At 12:54 AM 5/25/01, you wrote:
> >Guys,
> >
> >I wonder if their is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
> >Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
> >
> >The scenario was something like this:
> >________ _______ _______
> >|Area 0| |Area1| |Area2|
> >| R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
> >|______| |_____| |_____|
> >
> >There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
> >get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has
>to
> >use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area
>1)
> >to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actuall flow just to R1
>from R2.
> >
> >I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the
> >archives. Quite interesting issues.
> >
> >Regards,
> >Andy
> >
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