From: Chuck Larrieu (chuck@xxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 19:22:42 GMT-3
Depends on what you mean by "non contiguous"
Yes you can join a discontiguous non zero area with virtual links. This is
sorta discussed in the RFC as well. Well, maybe I better qualify that by
saying I have not actually tried this. The issue is the existence of
overlapping subnets. otherwise, SOPF does not care one way or another.
One of those things an evil lab proctor could really get you with, if one
were so inclined.
Chuck
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Frank Jimenez
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 3:03 PM
To: erickbe@yahoo.com; Frank Jimenez; Niall El-Assaad;
ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
Upon further review....
Erick/Chuck - I think you're correct... In fact, a review of the RFC
implies that you can have OSPF without an area defined at all. And as Chuck
pointed out to me, there's not even an 'Area' field in the LSA.
*SIGH* - see what happens when I try to apply logic to a network question?
:-)
What I really want to know now is if you can have a non-contiguous area
other than Area 0....
Frank Jimenez, CCIE #5738
franjime@cisco.com
At 02:56 PM 04/30/2001 -0700, Erick B. wrote:
>I beg to differ. If you have a multi-area OSPF network
>then area 0.0.0.0 is required. If you have a network
>and all routers are in the same area then you could
>put everything in area 51 and have no area 0.
>
>This works. I have done it with IOS. It is explained
>this way in the OSPF class I went to awhile back...
>and in some books I've read in the past but can't
>recall offhand.
>
>--- Frank Jimenez <franjime@cisco.com> wrote:
>> Niall,
>> No, this is correct. Every OSPF network must
>> have a backbone area, and 0.0.0.0 is reserved for
>> the backbone. Therefore, if you have an OSPF
>> network with only one area, this single area must be
>> the backbone, and must therefore be identified as
>> Area 0.
>>
>> Frank Jimenez, CCIE #5738
>> Systems Engineer
>> Cisco Systems, Inc.
>> franjime@cisco.com
>>
>>
>> At 10:03 PM 04/30/2001 +0100, Niall El-Assaad wrote:
>> >In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF
>> configuration must have
>> >an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area
>> for your entire network it
>> >must be area 0".
>> >
>> >Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area
>> it doesn't matter what it
>> >is? Does it?
>
>
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