From: Brian Dennis (brian@xxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 19:20:44 GMT-3
Frank,
Say I have two OSPF areas, area 0 and area 1 in my network. Area 1 has 5
routers that were configured in only area 1 (internal) and one router that
was the ABR for area 1. Now lets say that the ABR went down making area 1
totally isolated from area 0. What happens then to the 5 routers that have
only area 1 configured? Do they stop functioning because you only have area
1 configured?
If the stopped functioning it would be a major flaw in the design of OSPF.
Brian Dennis
CCIE #2210 (R&S)(ISP/Dial)
CCSI #98640
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Frank Jimenez
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:38 PM
To: Niall El-Assaad; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
Niall,
No, this is correct. Every OSPF network must have a backbone area, and
0.0.0.0 is reserved for the backbone. Therefore, if you have an OSPF
network with only one area, this single area must be the backbone, and must
therefore be identified as Area 0.
Frank Jimenez, CCIE #5738
Systems Engineer
Cisco Systems, Inc.
franjime@cisco.com
At 10:03 PM 04/30/2001 +0100, Niall El-Assaad wrote:
>In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must have
>an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network it
>must be area 0".
>
>Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter what
it
>is? Does it?
>
>
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