From: Brian Dennis (brian@xxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 18:47:57 GMT-3
You're right, you don't have to have area 0 for OSPF. You only need area 0
if you have more than one OSPF area. I'm sure that the author must have been
thinking one thing and wrote another.
Brian Dennis
CCIE #2210 (R&S)(ISP/Dial)
CCSI #98640
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Niall El-Assaad
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:04 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must have
an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network it
must be area 0".
Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter what it
is? Does it?
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