From: Frank Jimenez (franjime@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 18:41:20 GMT-3
False. You can have multiple Area 0s, that can then be connected via virtual l
inks. Can you have multiple areas other than Area 0? Never seen an example li
ke that....
Frank Jimenez
franjime@cisco.com
At 02:29 PM 04/30/2001 -0700, you wrote:
>The statement is not correct. If there is more than one OSPF area, then
>there MUST be an area 0. If there is a single area, it can be anything you
>want. This actually makes sense in terms of the OSPF standard. By
>definition, all traffic in such a case would be intra area traffic, and the
>routers would not be concerned with exiting the area.
>
>Now for the fun one. In a multiple area OSPF network, all area numbers must
>be unique - true or false? Why?
>
>Chuck
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
>Niall El-Assaad
>Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:04 PM
>To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
>
>In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must have
>an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network it
>must be area 0".
>
>Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter what it
>is? Does it?
>
>
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