From: David FAHED (dfahed@xxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sat Feb 24 2001 - 17:54:01 GMT-3
Yes it's true. You have to create first the virtual link between Router_s and
router_q. So after this the router_s belong to the area 0 and you have the righ
t
to create the second virtual link.
Hope this help!
Chuck Larrieu wrote:
> Ran into an interesting situation in the virtual link scenario in the
> Slattery/Burton book page 224.
>
> Area_1-Router_Q-area_2-router_R-area_2-router_S-area_3-router_T-area_0
>
> To create the virtual link from area 1 to area 0, what do you do?
>
> The book answer, which I validated, is to create two virtual links - one
> from router_q to router_s, and a second one from router_s to router_t. it
> seems odd, but that's the way it works. Apparently one cannot create a
> single virtual link that crosses two ( or more ) transit areas.
>
> ( yes, Nigel, I did modify what the book scenario presents. In the book what
> one is asked to create is a virtual link to act as a redundant link to area
> 0. But the principal is the same. )
>
> just another one of those little things that probably won't matter one way
> or another.
>
> Chuck
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Erick B.
> Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2001 11:12 PM
> To: Daniel M. Dawson; 'Devon Watkins'; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: RE: OSPF virtual link
>
> It also has to be the RID for the ABR for that area,
> which may not be router it is between. This is one
> thing people overlook. If you look at the show ip ospf
> commands it will report the RID there that is
> advertising. Reload or remove/add the OSPF process
> back to make sure the RID doesn't change after a
> reload because of a new higher IP address somewhere,
> etc.
>
> --- "Daniel M. Dawson" <dandawson@lucent.com> wrote:
> > I think your problem is that the IP addresses that
> > your put on the command
> > line after the virtual-link keyword has to be the
> > OSPF router ID not just
> > any interface.
> >
> > Daniel M. Dawson
> > Member Consulting Staff
> > Lucent Worldwide Services
> > Lucent Technologies
> > Mobile: (405) 850-1493
> > Pager: (800) 622-9202
> > E-mail: dandawson@lucent.com
> >
> >
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: nobody@groupstudy.com
> > [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
> > Devon Watkins
> > Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2001 10:13 PM
> > To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > Subject: OSPF virtual link
> >
> >
> > Group,
> >
> > I am working on OSPF virtual links. In the past I
> > had thought was fairly
> > easy, but now I have a problem that has me stumped.
> >
> > Here is what I have:
> >
> > Rtr 1 has an ethernet link in area 1
> > Rrt 2 has an ethernet link in area 1 also
> > Rtr 2 has a link in area 0
> >
> > so far so good, but then...
> > I add a serial interface on Rtr 1 to area 2 and add
> > the following config
> > info:
> >
> > rtr 1
> >
> > area 1 virtual-link <pingable ip on rtr 2, in area
> > 0>
> >
> > rtr 2
> >
> > area 1 virtial-link <ip interface of serial
> > interface in area 2 of rtr1 (is
> > pingable)>
> >
> > Any idea of what I am screwing up?
> >
> > Thanks
>
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