Re: OSPF Path Selection

From: Tony Singh <mothafungla_at_gmail.com>
Date: Fri, 27 Sep 2013 09:48:12 +0100

Edit the intra area comment clearly a poor guess.

Ok just read Petr's PDF too he's basically referring to what we'd not consider #3 to actually be #3 i.e non-zero area to non-zero area by means of a VL, essentially the requirement of a type 3 LSA is still valid to cross areas.

--
BR
Tony
Sent from my iPhone on 3
On 27 Sep 2013, at 08:40, Tony Singh <mothafungla_at_gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> For what it's worth I totally agree as we're transiting through area 0 and the newly established ABR (after a VL has been established to a genuine area 0 ABR) to exit into an say fir example O E2 destination.....
> 
> I think by #3 they mean O intra this is my only thinking, but for OIA we'd have to traverse an area 0 ABR for a non zero area to get to another non zero area i.e it would have to receive a type 3 LSA in the first place from the ABR.
> 
> --
> BR
> 
> Tony
> 
> Sent from my iPhone on 3
> 
> On 27 Sep 2013, at 07:43, Joe Astorino <joeastorino1982_at_gmail.com> wrote:
> 
>> With the default capability transit all you are doing is taking a transit area to get to area 0 instead of taking a VL through the same transit area. In both cases you still end up in area 0 then pass through area 0 to get to the other nonbackbone area.
>> 
>> 
>> Sent from my iPhone
>> 
>>> On Sep 27, 2013, at 2:41 AM, Joe Astorino <joeastorino1982_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>>> 
>>> In my mind no because the stated rule 3 says for "a path crossing areas" "take the shortest path to the destination without crossing area 0" 
>>> 
>>> With a virtual link scenario, you ride the VL which is in area 0 to an ABR. For a router in a nonzero area to reach a route in another nonzero area, even with the virtual link you still pass through area 0 at some stage. 
>>> 
>>> Say you have area3---area0---area1---area2 
>>> You would build a VL from area 2 to area 0 transmitting through area 1. If a packet wants to get to area 3 from area 2 , it rides an area 0 link to the backbone (the VL) first (rule 1) Then it would take the shortest path through area 0 (rule 2)
>>> 
>>> Once I to area 0 though I don't see how it would get to area 3 "without crossing area 0"
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> Sent from my iPhone
>>> 
>>>> On Sep 27, 2013, at 1:59 AM, Tony Singh <mothafungla_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>>>> 
>>>> 
>>>> The non-zero router becomes an ABR when it connects via a VL into an area 0 router.
>>>> 
>>>> So technically is this really point 3?
>>>> 
>>>> --
>>>> BR
>>>> 
>>>> Tony
>>>> 
>>>> Sent from my iPhone on 3
>>>> 
>>>>> On 27 Sep 2013, at 06:26, Joe Astorino <joeastorino1982_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>>>>> 
>>>>> Yes of course, but as we know the VL is just a link in area 0 so that is not really what I'm getting at. There is also the case with the default capability transit where you can ride a transit area INTO the backbone instead of the VL but one way or another for inter area traffic you end up in the backbone 
>>>>> 
>>>>> Sent from my iPhone
>>>>> 
>>>>>> On Sep 27, 2013, at 1:03 AM, daniel.dib_at_reaper.nu wrote:
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> Hi Joe! 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> This could happen if you have a virtual link between ABRs
>>>>>> meaning that you have something Like Area 0 - Area 1 - Area 2. Check
>>>>>> this INE blog post for the full info:
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> http://blog.ine.com/2009/09/14/understanding-ospf-transit-capability/
>>>>>> [4] 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> Regards Daniel 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> CCIE #37149 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 2013-09-27 06:17 skrev Joe
>>>>>> Astorino: 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> So this has actually been bothering me now for YEARS. In
>>>>>> the CCIE RS Exam
>>>>>>> Certification Guide, there is a paragraph that goes
>>>>>> something like this:
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> *OSPF has specific rules for selecting a path
>>>>>> that crosses areas. *
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> *1) Take the shortest path to area 0.
>>>>>>> 2)
>>>>>> Take the shortest path across area 0 without traversing a nonzero
>>>>>> area.
>>>>>>> 3) Take the shortest path to the destination without traversing
>>>>>> area 0.*
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> This has always been somewhat vague and even disturbing to
>>>>>> me. It's
>>>>>>> seemingly vague and no other explanation is given about this
>>>>>> process. Rule
>>>>>>> 1, take the shortest path to area 0 makes sense. Once
>>>>>> you get to the
>>>>>>> backbone area, rule #2 even makes sense. But rule #3
>>>>>> has never and does not
>>>>>>> make sense to me
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> So far as I recall, an
>>>>>> OSPF ABR will never accept type 3 summary LSA
>>>>>>> information from a
>>>>>> non-backbone area. In other words, If an ABR receives
>>>>>>> inter-area
>>>>>> routing information for a non-backbone area from a non-backbone
>>>>>>> area
>>>>>> it is ignored. This makes sure that inter area routing information is
>>>>>> only learned from the backbone area, and is also a loop prevention
>>>>>> mechanism. Further, in my mind it guarantees that all inter-area
>>>>>> traffic
>>>>>>> must transit the backbone.
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> With that being said, can
>>>>>> anybody think of ANY case EVER where rule #3 is
>>>>>>> even valid? How would
>>>>>> it ever be possible for inter-area traffic to get to
>>>>>>> a destination
>>>>>> without traversing area 0?
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> -- 
>>>>>>> Regards,
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> Joe Astorino
>>>>>>> CCIE
>>>>>> #24347
>>>>>>> http://astorinonetworks.com [1]
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> "He not busy being born is
>>>>>> busy dying" - Dylan
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
>>>>>> [2]
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>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> Links:
>>>>>> ------
>>>>>> [1]
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>>>>>> [2] http://www.ccie.net
>>>>>> [3]
>>>>>> http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
>>>>>> [4]
>>>>>> http://blog.ine.com/2009/09/14/understanding-ospf-transit-capability/
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 
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>>>>>> 
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>>>>> 
>>>>> 
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Received on Fri Sep 27 2013 - 09:48:12 ART

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