Believe it or not, people that design solutions try to make it as easy
as possible. Given that you will always have only one backbone, it's
easier to have it fixed than to have yet another parameter to configure.
On a more conceptual side, design decisions are made in a context that
is not always readily available, so even though it's nice to know why
something is done one way or the other, sometimes the answer is just
"because someone decided to do it so".
Moy could have thought: hey, if someone starts with area 1.1.1.1 and
then joins area 2.2.2.2, he might want to pick which one to become
backbone. It seems he did not.
-Carlos
marc edwards @ 27/03/2012 07:30 -0300 dixit:
> Nope
>
> On Tuesday, March 27, 2012, Saravanan Ponnaiah<
> saravanan.ponnaiah8_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>> Dear Calin,
>>
>> They explained as why we need a backbone area 0.
>>
>> My questions is "It is possible to make non area 0 as backbone in OSPF?"
>>
>> With Regards
>>
>> P.Saravanan
>>
>>
>>
>> On Tue, Mar 27, 2012 at 3:03 PM, Calin Chiorean<calin_at_engineer.com>
> wrote:
>>
>>> Hello,
>>>
>>> https://supportforums.cisco.com/thread/2095492
>>>
>>> It's a longer discussion but it has actually an answer to your question
> :)
>>>
>>> Cheers,
>>> Calin
>>>
>>> On 03/27/2012 12:12 PM, Saravanan Ponnaiah wrote:
>>>> Dear Experts,
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I have a stupid doubt, but it's bothering me a bit as i cant get it
> right
>>>> in my head.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I know that a OSPF network has a Backbone Area. What i fail to
> understand
>>>> is, why does the backbone Area always have to be Area 0? Why cant it be
>>> any
>>>> number between< 0 - 4294967295>?
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> With Regards
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> P.Saravanan
>>>>
>>>>
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>
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-- Carlos G Mendioroz <tron_at_huapi.ba.ar> LW7 EQI Argentina Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.netReceived on Tue Mar 27 2012 - 07:51:25 ART
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