Re: source addr. for icmp if link-local-only on interface

From: Roger Pfaeffli <rpf23543_at_gmail.com>
Date: Fri, 2 Sep 2011 13:01:20 +0200

No that's not what I was asking. The question is which source address
the router "borrows" as source address if the WAN address has a link
local only. Link local (FE80:.....) is sufficient for routing purposes
only. What I have seen is that if I have for example a Loopback on the
router with a global scoped address, the router takes this one as
source but if I have other interfaces with global scope, he does also
take them.

So what is the rule, the standard or the Cisco implementation rule to
choose the source in this case?

regards

Roger #23543

On Fri, Sep 2, 2011 at 12:35 PM, imran ali <immrccie_at_gmail.com> wrote:
> if you are talking about EUI - 64 , then the host portion of ip address is
> borrowed from interface mac address itself ..
>
> On Fri, Sep 2, 2011 at 11:58 AM, Roger Pfaeffli <rpf23543_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>> Hi group,
>>
>> On a router, if I have on a WAN link just the ipv6 link local address
>> ('cause this is enough for routing) and I execute a v6ping to a global
>> scoped address somewhere in this WAN, my router chooses a global
>> scoped address, borrowed from another interface of my router. That's
>> at least what I've tested.
>> How is this "borrowed" address chosen and where is this specified? I
>> could not find an rfc describing exactly this. I guess this is vendor
>> specific, if so, is there a documentation from Cisco explaining this?
>>
>> regards
>>
>> Roger #23543
>>
>>
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Received on Fri Sep 02 2011 - 13:01:20 ART

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