> I wonder if we could test this with a simple ping?
Disclaimer: This is unbelievably unscientific, quick and dirty and in
no way proves either point. I still think a proper traffic generator
is required.
I added 7 loopbacks on another router (the one that is default gateway
for both interfaces):
101.100.100.100
102.100.100.100
103.100.100.100
104.100.100.100
105.100.100.100
106.100.100.100
107.100.100.100
I ran the following from the router with static routes (prior to this,
I made sure the ARP table was populated and I cleared the counters and
disabled anything else on the router than can generate packets and/or
frames, leaving only my pings in output counters):
foreach ip {
101.100.100.100
102.100.100.100
103.100.100.100
104.100.100.100
105.100.100.100
106.100.100.100
107.100.100.100
} { ping $ip repe 1 }
What I should be seeing is 5:2 ratio in packets. This is what I got:
R2#sh int gi0/0 | i packets out
4 packets output, 456 bytes, 0 underruns
R2#sh int gi0/1 | i packets out
3 packets output, 342 bytes, 0 underruns
Which leads me to my original assumption of 1:1 ratio.
-- Marko Milivojevic - CCIE #18427 Senior Technical Instructor - IPexpert FREE CCIE training: http://bit.ly/vLecture Mailto: markom_at_ipexpert.com Telephone: +1.810.326.1444 Web: http://www.ipexpert.com/ Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.netReceived on Mon May 02 2011 - 17:10:19 ART
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