Re: ipv6 rip question

From: Joe Astorino <joe_astorino_at_comcast.net>
Date: Sun, 30 May 2010 12:56:46 +0000 (UTC)

I'm not sure I follow your question at this point. If you define the RIP-NG process with one name, and then call another name on the interface level, you are defining a second process when you fat finger it.

Regards,
Joe Astorino, CCIE #24347

"He not busy being born is busy dying" -- Dylan

----- Original Message -----
From: "Mustafa Yadav" <mustafa.yadav_at_gmail.com>
To: "Joe Astorino" <joe_astorino_at_comcast.net>
Cc: "Sinan Bayraktar" <sinan.bayraktar_at_gmail.com>, "Cisco certification" <ccielab_at_groupstudy.com>
Sent: Sunday, May 30, 2010 8:43:15 AM GMT -05:00 US/Canada Eastern
Subject: Re: ipv6 rip question

But having unique process id is not so important for having rip run .Even if I made a typo for the rip process name it still works.Is not it?

On Sun, May 30, 2010 at 3:39 PM, Joe Astorino < joe_astorino_at_comcast.net > wrote:

You use the process name to identify the RIP process. You will call that same name when you enable RIP on your interfaces.

Regards,
Joe Astorino, CCIE #24347

"He not busy being born is busy dying" -- Dylan

----- Original Message -----

From: "Sinan Bayraktar" < sinan.bayraktar_at_gmail.com >
To: "Cisco certification" < ccielab_at_groupstudy.com >
Sent: Sunday, May 30, 2010 8:19:27 AM GMT -05:00 US/Canada Eastern
Subject: ipv6 rip question

hi,

I did not understand why we are using a process name for for ipv6 rip
process.Even I use rip process name I can see rip routes in the routing
table.What is the point here?In which situation having unique process name
makes sense?

Thanks

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Received on Sun May 30 2010 - 12:56:46 ART

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