I would say no. The virtual-link is an extension of area 0, not area 1.
On Tue, Oct 6, 2009 at 1:33 PM, ZZ <zurabz_at_gmail.com> wrote:
> Hello experts,
>
> Let's say I have three ospf areas, area 0 <->Area 1<->Area 2
> I have authentication requirement on area 1. The same time Area 1 is
> transit
> area for virtual-link.
>
> Do I need to enable authentication also on virtual-link?
>
>
> Thanks,
> ZZ
>
>
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-- Bryan Bartik CCIE #23707 (R&S), CCNP Sr. Support Engineer - IPexpert, Inc. URL: http://www.IPexpert.com Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.netReceived on Tue Oct 06 2009 - 14:13:03 ART
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