Re: IGP full reachability

From: Hobbs (deadheadblues@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Aug 04 2008 - 18:46:54 ART


But we are not supposed to configure anything on the BB1 router, right? :)

A tunnel on R1 would mean we have to configure the other end on BB1...

The network has access to R1's interface 10.1.1.1, but they cant "reach"
10.1.1.254 because BB1 doesn't know where to send the icmp reply. So the
problem isn't have access to 10.1.1.0/24 but rather BB1 route back towards
the network...

On Mon, Aug 4, 2008 at 2:24 PM, Dayaa Al Zoubi <cciecool@gmail.com> wrote:

> Ok , the tunnel source and destination will be the wan interfaces and then
>
> Have the tunnel ip on the same range and advertize it in IGP
>
> Does it make sense?
>
> Try It ..
>
> Thanks
>
> Dayaa
>
>
>
>
>
>
> On Tue, Aug 5, 2008 at 12:04 AM, Hobbs <deadheadblues@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> hmmm....curious...how would tunneling help BB1 get to the network?
>>
>> I see how NAT could work, we would just NAT all addresses at R1 fa0/0, but
>> not sure about tunneling....
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Aug 4, 2008 at 1:57 PM, Dayaa Al Zoubi <cciecool@gmail.com>wrote:
>>
>>> Tunneling
>>> Dayaa
>>>
>>> On Mon, Aug 4, 2008 at 6:57 PM, akyccie <akyccie@gmail.com> wrote:
>>>
>>> > R1 is connected to BB1 over ethernet (R1 fa0/0 -10.1.1.1 and BB1
>>> > fa0/0-10.1.1.254). scenario doesn't ask to configure any routing
>>> protocol
>>> > between R1 and BB1 so how to reach BB1 (10.1.1.254) from the routers
>>> > behind
>>> > the R1 to have the full reachability.
>>> >
>>> > One option I can think of is use NAT, is there any other way ???
>>> >
>>> > -aky
>>> >
>>> >
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