From: Neo Shi (neoshi@gmail.com)
Date: Fri Dec 07 2007 - 13:39:38 ART
The switch forward the frame based on the destination MAC address, so if the
port 1 send the frame to vlan 2, the frame's destination MAC address should
be the default gateway's MAC address because the destination IP address
belongs to the differnt vlan which neet the default gateway to route.
On Dec 7, 2007 3:16 PM, Donghai Zhang <zdh1207@gmail.com> wrote:
> Hi,guys,
> I was just wondering a simple question,maybe stupid.Suppose a switch has
> two ports belonging to vlan 1 and vlan 2 , seperately. When this
> switch receives a frame from port 1, which belong to vlan 1, and
> destinate
> to vlan 2, which is at port 2.How dose the swich know it cann't do this
> directly(send to port 2) and must send it first to router and then come
> back
> to port 2?
>
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