From: CCIEin2006 (ciscocciein2006@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Oct 29 2007 - 15:41:31 ART
So in this scenario
Area1-Area2
\ /
Area0
Area 1 and 2 are directly connected. Would the data need to flow to area0 or
can the traffic flow directly?
What if we configured a virtual link between them?
On 10/29/07, CCIEin2006 <ciscocciein2006@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Hi folks,
>
> I was reading over Jeff Doyle's blog and came across his favorite
> interview question:
> Why does OSPF require all traffic between non-backbone areas to pass
> through a backbone area (area 0)?
>
> Answer:
> Because inter-area OSPF is distance vector, it is vulnerable to routing
> loops. It avoids loops by mandating a loop-free inter-area topology, in
> which traffic from one area can only reach another area through area 0.
>
> Can someone elaborate on that answer a little bit? Exactly how does having
> a connection to Area0 prevent routing loops? Is it similar to spanning tree
> in the area 0 is the root of the spanning tree?
>
> Also this answer does not take into consideration redistribution from
> another routing protocol right?
>
> Thank You
>
> Here is the article:
> http://www.networkworld.com/community/node/19293
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Fri Nov 16 2007 - 13:11:19 ART