From: CCIE Abreu (ccie.abreu@gmail.com)
Date: Tue Oct 23 2007 - 16:43:41 ART
Hello guys,
This may sound like a question for the CCIE SP group, but I think it applies
here as well, since it's about BGP and OSPF.
Can anyone explain the main reason why BGP is widely used as the protocol to
connect remote sites that are part of a MPLS network?
Since we may be running OSPF in each remote site, why can't we have all OSPF
all the way, let's say, having all edge routers as part of area 0?
And what's the deal with OSPF sham links? I don't get those either.
Thanks.
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Fri Nov 16 2007 - 13:11:18 ART