From: Aamir Aziz (aamiraz77@gmail.com)
Date: Sat Jul 08 2006 - 15:51:53 ART
Hi
So If i need to bring one of any of the addresses in the same subnet how do
i do it?
Thanks
Aamir
On 7/8/06, Scott Morris <swm@emanon.com> wrote:
>
> No. Your first 64 bits:
>
> R1 = network FEC0:0000:0001:00EB
> R2 = network FEC0:0000:0001:0000
>
> HTH,
>
>
>
> Scott Morris, CCIE4 (R&S/ISP-Dial/Security/Service Provider) #4713, JNCIE
> #153, CISSP, et al.
> CCSI/JNCI-M/JNCI-J
> smorris@ipexpert.com
> http://www.ipexpert.com
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Aamir Aziz
> Sent: Saturday, July 08, 2006 2:41 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: IpV6
>
> Hi ppl
>
> I have some problem in understanding IPv6 addressing, two routers directly
> connected:
>
> R1 = ipv6 address FEC0:0:1:EB::1/64
> R2 = ipv6 address FEC0:0:1::2/64
>
> My question is are these two addresses in the same IPV6 subnet?
>
> Thanks
> Aamir
>
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