BGP question

From: Mike O (mikeeo@msn.com)
Date: Mon Jun 26 2006 - 12:15:30 ART


Hi all I have a question.

say I have R1,2 and 3 in iBGP AS 1 and R5 in AS 2.

both R1 and R2 peer wth R5 and the question states that R1 must be the
preferred path into AS 2 and this configuration must be done on R2 and do
not use local-pref.

I created a route-map that set inbound routes from AS 2 to incomplete on R2.

I also set next-hop-self on both R1 and R2, but that shouldn't violate the
rules.

It does indeed work as R1 is the preferred path into AS 2, but why? is it
because all routes equal BGP will prefer the lowest router-id which is R1?

And would this gain me points? I'd reloaded all the routers and everytime
they re-sync up R1 is the preferred path.



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