From: Anthony Sequeira (terry.francona@gmail.com)
Date: Wed Nov 23 2005 - 23:42:27 GMT-3
I want to tunnel my iBGP peering from R1 to R4 because R2 is not running
BGP. I want to use the loopback 0 interfaces for the peerings. The IGP in
use is EIGRP and all of the interfaces shown below are running EIGRP.
R1-----4.4.8.0/24-----R2-----4.4.12.0/24-----R4
R1 lo0 4.4.1.1/24
R4 lo0 4.4.4.4/24
I have this sample scenario labbed up and I am having a heck of a time. I
have tried the following with no luck:
Attempt 1
R1:
int tunnel 0
ip unnumbered lo0
tunnel source 4.4.8.1
tunnel destination 4.4.12.4
R2:
int tunnel 0
ip unnumbered lo0
tunnel source 4.4.12.4
tunnel destination 4.4.8.1
Attempt 2
R1:
int tunnel 0
ip unnumbered lo0
tunnel source lo0
tunnel destination 4.4.4.4
R2:
int tunnel 0
ip unnumbered lo0
tunnel source lo0
tunnel destination 4.4.1.1
You see this is easy and works great if I create a new subnet for the
tunnel and use that in my BGP peerings the issue that I am having is
trying to use the loopback addresses for the peerings and still use my
tunnel.
I notice that my tunnel interface does not show up in the routing table when
I am pulling the address from the loopback..I guess this must be why my BGP
is not using it????
Anyone feel like labbing this one up and trying this one? Or is it something
really simple that I am missing about tunnels?
Thanks in advance for you consideration of this e-mail.
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