From: Edwards, Andrew M (andrew.m.edwards@boeing.com)
Date: Wed Nov 23 2005 - 11:41:23 GMT-3
Dave/Steven,
Yes you do. A virtual-link, being an extension of area 0, does require
the same authentication on the virtual-link as the rest of the routers
in area 0.
If you were using link authentication it's a different story. But,
because your question pertains to authentication applied to the entire
area, you need to authenticate the virtual-link and then under the OSPF
process tell the router to authenticate area 0 with the correct type
(md5/clear text).
Lab it up.
HTH,
Andy
-----Original Message-----
From: Schulz, Dave [mailto:DSchulz@dpsciences.com]
Sent: Wednesday, November 23, 2005 5:42 AM
To: steven richards; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: Question on using Authentication over Virtual Links
I did not see any responses to this question, but I believe the answer
is that you do not need to authenticate the virtual link, when using
area 0 authentication. However, I am going to lab that up to make
certain. Please someone correct me if I am wrong.
Dave Schulz,
Email: dschulz@dpsciences.com
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
steven richards
Sent: Tuesday, November 22, 2005 5:01 AM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Question on using Authentication over Virtual Links
hello,
a virtual link is an extension to area 0. So if I had three routers that
where in a hub and spoke network that where connected via area 10. And
one
of the spokes was connected to area 0. And I where using clear text in
area
0 and message digest in area 10. I believe I would need to use clear
text
auth over the virtual link since it is an extension to area 0 even
though it
is physically connected to routers that are using message digest to
connect
to each other. Is this a correct assumption ?
Thanks,
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Dec 01 2005 - 09:12:07 GMT-3