Simple question

From: Nadeem Zahid \(iszahid\) (iszahid@cisco.com)
Date: Thu Oct 20 2005 - 18:20:58 GMT-3

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SW1----------SW2

Let say 2 ports on SW2 are required to be in VLAN 2066. Since this is
extended range
and not propagated thru VTP, does that imply that VTP mode must be
changed to
transparent first on SW2? There is not other way around - right?

Nadeem

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