From: Chacko, Raj (RChacko@DRAFTNET.com)
Date: Sun Oct 16 2005 - 15:09:46 GMT-3
Thanks Scott for responding!
I understand. This is right out of IPexpert Ver 2.0 workbook. Lab 33 and I
just couldn't figure out why they would ask a BDR to be configured on a
spoke in this example. (may be the lab is implying me to configure
full-mesh)
On another note, If I use a neighbor statement, does that still mean that my
hello's are multicast and only the updates are unicast?
Thanks,
Raj
-----Original Message-----
From: Scott Morris [mailto:swm@emanon.com]
Sent: Sunday, October 16, 2005 12:46 PM
To: 'Chacko, Raj'; ccielab@groupstudy.com; comserv@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: OSPF BDR on a spoke
OSPF has a TTL of 1 in its packets. And if your hub is down, aren't you
screwed anyway?
In a nutshell, no, don't elect a BDR on hub/spoke networks unless the BDR is
a second hub that has full reachability of everyone.
Scott
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Chacko, Raj
Sent: Sunday, October 16, 2005 1:13 PM
To: 'ccielab@groupstudy.com'; 'comserv@groupstudy.com'
Subject: OSPF BDR on a spoke
Hi Group,
If I enable a neighbor statement(s) on a spoke router, is it
possible to configure it as a BDR, without having full mesh or at least a
partial mesh?
R2(s0)______________(s0)R4
|\
| \ (FR network)
| \___________(s0)R6
|
| (Point2Multi)
|______________(s1)R5
Here is the situation, (OSPF config)
No sub interfaces allowed, Single subnet, Only Frame maps allowed are on R2.
R2 is configured as the DR. Is it possible to set one of the spoke routers
as a BDR when there is not direct connectivity to the BDR from the rest of
the spokes?
Thanks,
Raj
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