From: Arun Arumuganainar (aarumuga@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Aug 30 2005 - 11:52:35 GMT-3
If authentication is enabled . You need A) Dialer string B) Remote host name
and C) User name and Password at the global command .
Thanks and Regards
Arun
----- Original Message -----
From: "Ashok Ananda (aananda)" <aananda@cisco.com>
To: "Schulz, Dave" <DSchulz@dpsciences.com>; "Stephen Hull "
<shull@getsouthern.com>; <nobody@groupstudy.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Tuesday, August 30, 2005 8:10 PM
Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
> Just found that dialer string is required if no authentication is
> configured. If authentication is configured remote end pings even
> without dialer string configured at the remote end.
>
>
>
> Thanks & Regards,
>
> Ashok M A
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Schulz, Dave
> Sent: Tuesday, August 30, 2005 4:25 PM
> To: Stephen Hull ; nobody@groupstudy.com; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
>
> Steve -
>
> Do you need to have the dialer string at the answering side for L3 to L2
> if you never initiate a call from this location? I agree that you do
> need the interesting traffic definitions.
>
> Dave
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Sent: 8/28/2005 6:23 PM
> Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
>
> Thanks,
>
> I can't believe that I forgot that. That was too basic.
>
> Thanks for the help,
>
> Stephen
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: ccie2be [mailto:ccie2be@nyc.rr.com]
> Sent: Sunday, August 28, 2005 4:33 PM
> To: Stephen Hull; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
>
> Stephen,
>
> If R1 is allowed to call R2, you need to remember that R2 must have a
> way to do L3 to L2 address resolution for return traffic to get back to
> R1.
>
> If you remove the telephone # of R1 from the dialer map of R2, how will
> R2
> know how to resolve return traffic from R1?
>
> On the other hand, if R2 doesn't have any defined "interesting" traffic
> (no dialer-group # command), R2 can never call R1.
>
> HTH, Tim
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Stephen Hull
> Sent: Sunday, August 28, 2005 5:00 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: ISDN one way dialing semantics
>
> Hi everyone,
>
>
>
> Thanks in advance for any help.
>
>
>
> I have a question about semantics concerning ISDN. If you get something
> that says only one router will dial the other, what are they actually
> asking for? I am not referring to anything in particular, just a
> generic question. I am doing a workbook that is asking for something
> like this. What I mean by this is there are several ways to look at the
> question. Would they want one of the routers to never try and make a
> call or would it mean that only one router could establish a connection.
>
>
>
>
> The 2 ways I am thinking of are of course, on one of the routers, to
> remove the dialer map. The other way I was thinking of was to give the
> non-calling router a bogus dial number in the dialer map. Either way,
> the end result is that, lets say Router2, will never be able to
> establish a call to Router5. If Router5, however, is configured
> properly, it will call Router2. I know ultimately you Ask the Proctor,
> but I am trying to prepare completely for any possible circumstances.
>
>
>
> Would either way be acceptable? Are the proctors looking for the end
> result or specific commands that you should or shouldn't have in your
> config?
>
>
>
> Anyway, any help is greatly appreciated.
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> -Stephen
>
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