From: Schulz, Dave (DSchulz@dpsciences.com)
Date: Tue Aug 30 2005 - 07:55:02 GMT-3
Steve -
Do you need to have the dialer string at the answering side for L3 to L2 if
you never initiate a call from this location? I agree that you do need the
interesting traffic definitions.
Dave
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Sent: 8/28/2005 6:23 PM
Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
Thanks,
I can't believe that I forgot that. That was too basic.
Thanks for the help,
Stephen
-----Original Message-----
From: ccie2be [mailto:ccie2be@nyc.rr.com]
Sent: Sunday, August 28, 2005 4:33 PM
To: Stephen Hull; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: ISDN one way dialing semantics
Stephen,
If R1 is allowed to call R2, you need to remember that R2 must have a
way to
do L3 to L2 address resolution for return traffic to get back to R1.
If you remove the telephone # of R1 from the dialer map of R2, how will
R2
know how to resolve return traffic from R1?
On the other hand, if R2 doesn't have any defined "interesting" traffic
(no
dialer-group # command), R2 can never call R1.
HTH, Tim
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Stephen Hull
Sent: Sunday, August 28, 2005 5:00 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: ISDN one way dialing semantics
Hi everyone,
Thanks in advance for any help.
I have a question about semantics concerning ISDN. If you get something
that says only one router will dial the other, what are they actually
asking for? I am not referring to anything in particular, just a
generic question. I am doing a workbook that is asking for something
like this. What I mean by this is there are several ways to look at the
question. Would they want one of the routers to never try and make a
call or would it mean that only one router could establish a connection.
The 2 ways I am thinking of are of course, on one of the routers, to
remove the dialer map. The other way I was thinking of was to give the
non-calling router a bogus dial number in the dialer map. Either way,
the end result is that, lets say Router2, will never be able to
establish a call to Router5. If Router5, however, is configured
properly, it will call Router2. I know ultimately you Ask the Proctor,
but I am trying to prepare completely for any possible circumstances.
Would either way be acceptable? Are the proctors looking for the end
result or specific commands that you should or shouldn't have in your
config?
Anyway, any help is greatly appreciated.
-Stephen
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