From: Schulz, Dave (DSchulz@dpsciences.com)
Date: Sun Aug 28 2005 - 18:23:40 GMT-3
It may be looking for authentication one-way for the dial-in (originating)
side. In which case, you would use the "ppp authentication chap callin" at
the originate side. And, "ppp authentication chap accept" at the answering
side....the dialer map/dialer string is only needed at the originating side.
Dave
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Sent: 8/28/2005 4:59 PM
Subject: ISDN one way dialing semantics
Hi everyone,
Thanks in advance for any help.
I have a question about semantics concerning ISDN. If you get something
that says only one router will dial the other, what are they actually
asking for? I am not referring to anything in particular, just a
generic question. I am doing a workbook that is asking for something
like this. What I mean by this is there are several ways to look at the
question. Would they want one of the routers to never try and make a
call or would it mean that only one router could establish a connection.
The 2 ways I am thinking of are of course, on one of the routers, to
remove the dialer map. The other way I was thinking of was to give the
non-calling router a bogus dial number in the dialer map. Either way,
the end result is that, lets say Router2, will never be able to
establish a call to Router5. If Router5, however, is configured
properly, it will call Router2. I know ultimately you Ask the Proctor,
but I am trying to prepare completely for any possible circumstances.
Would either way be acceptable? Are the proctors looking for the end
result or specific commands that you should or shouldn't have in your
config?
Anyway, any help is greatly appreciated.
-Stephen
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