From: ccie2be (ccie2be@nyc.rr.com)
Date: Tue May 31 2005 - 11:54:43 GMT-3
Hi guys,
I haven't played around with this I a long time and so some of the details
have become fuzzy but.
Let's say this is your config for the isdn between R4 and R5:
R4
Int bri 0/0
Ip addr x.x.x.1
dialer map ip x.x.x.2 broadcast 5551000
dialer load-threshold 10 either
dialer-group 1
isdn switch-type basic-ni
isdn spid1 0555200001 5552000
isdn spid2 0555400001 5554000
ppp multilink
And, the other end of the link has a similar config ie. 2 spids and ONE
dialer map command. Assume both config's are 100% correct as far as switch
type, spids, Directory Numbers and ip addresses.
Notice that there are spids configured but only ONE dialer map command. How
is it that once ppp multilink kicks in, the 2nd B-channel comes up?
Something under the hood must be going on in order for the 2nd B-channel to
be brought up even though the directory number on both sides for the 2nd
channel is different than the directory number for the first B-channel AND
there's not a 2nd dialer map for the L3 to L2 address resolution.
Can someone explain how this works?
Notice one other thing. 5551000 is the directory on R5 associated with
spid1 on R5 and 5553000 is the directory number on R5 associated with spid2
on R5.
If the dialer map on R4 pointed to 5553000 instead of 5551000, would that
make any difference?
Last thing. Are still any Cisco labs that are using spids? I'm pretty sure
RTP no longer uses spids but it seems many of the rack rental and workbook
vendors still use spids. Personally, I think its time for spids to follow
appletalk and ipx into the dustbins of history. Anyone disagree?
Tim
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