From: Pat Chui (cui666@gmail.com)
Date: Thu Apr 07 2005 - 02:13:45 GMT-3
I sort of know the rule, but this one is little unusual, 'cause
normally, you would set med at outbound to a eBGP peer, in my case, it
apply to a peer inbound, so is it considered 2 as hops? in another
word, is it different from applying it to outbound peer seesion to R3?
Or better yet, if an OSPF area is attached to R1, and redist OSPF -->
BGP, by default, ospf cost will be translated to bgp med, will this
med be propagated to R3? in my lab, I saw it is, but like to know the
theory behind it
Thanks,
Pat
On Apr 6, 2005 9:45 PM, Dillon Yang <dillony@gmail.com> wrote:
> NO!
> MED has something like TTL=1 that make it can not be propagated more than 1 AS.
>
> HTH
> dillon
>
>
> On Apr 7, 2005 12:40 PM, Pat Chui <cui666@gmail.com> wrote:
> > Hi, group
> > Quick question:
> > for the following diagram:
> >
> > R1(AS65200)--->R2(AS65201)--->R3(AS100)
> >
> > if I set med at R2 for R1's peer session at inbound direction(ie, at
> > R2, use neighbour x.x.x.x route-map set-med in), will it be propagated
> > into R3(AS100)?
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Pat
> >
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