From: Ed Lui (edwlui@gmail.com)
Date: Thu Feb 24 2005 - 23:47:29 GMT-3
Hi Eric & Dan,
Thanks for all your input. They are invaluable......... What I thought
was maybe there is an application/daemon keeps watching for the
traffice flow. Then if needed, the router will run another NAT on the
2nd wan link to utilize the wan2 bandwidth. But then, I was told that
the destination only sees the source ip from wan1.......So, it drives
me nuts....
All of a sudden, I am thinking the router may be able to spoof the
source ip to get the full combined bandwidth from the 2 wan links. Is
it possible or I am too crazy? Or I need to go back to study the IE
stuff?
Anyway, thanks :-)
On Thu, 24 Feb 2005 16:28:24 -0800, Eric Cables <ecables@gmail.com> wrote:
> The only way this could work is if you had two links, and ran BGP.
> Even if you had two links to a single provider, and bridged the
> interfaces, only one would be able to transmit at any given time
> (spanning tree would block the other).
>
> If you have separate providers, the only way I can see this working is
> by rotating which provider is used for outbound traffic. Since both
> providers use separate IP space, there is no way to simulate a single
> source IP and have both providers advertise that to their peers.
>
> So to answer your question, there is simply some method the device
> uses to round robin outbound traffic between providers. It will still
> achieve the result of increased bandwidth, but you won't be able to
> utilize more than a single provider's total bandwidth to a single
> destination.
>
> Hope this helps,
>
> On Thu, 24 Feb 2005 16:01:14 -0800, Ed Lui <edwlui@gmail.com> wrote:
> > Hi Dan,
> >
> > Thanks for your reply and information. You also answer my question
> > about load balance traffic to server.
> >
> > I wish I have the device to lab it up to see if it is true or not. I
> > understand about the NAT feature you mentioned. That device also comes
> > with the protocol binding feature, so you can configure certain
> > traffic goes thru certain wan link. I completely understand that part.
> >
> > What I was told is(sounds like load sharing rather than load balance) :
> >
> > |---- wan1 -----|
> > destination ip ------------internet cloud | |-----user
> > |---- wan2 -----|
> >
> > The user initiates an ftp connection, the connection can be bundled
> > up(multilink) to the destination to get the combined bandwidth, and
> > the destination sees only wan1's ip address. Because the destination
> > only accept ftp connection from wan1's ip address. To my knowledge, it
> > doesn't sound logical. That's why I wish you all experts can give me
> > 2CENTS.
> >
> > :-)
> > --
> > Edward
> > (A+, Net+, MCP, MCP+I, MCSE, CCNA, CCNP)
> >
> > On Thu, 24 Feb 2005 19:04:02 +0200, Danshtr <danshtr@gmail.com> wrote:
> > > There R two thing to consider:
> > >
> > > 1. Load blalancing users from your network to the internet
> > > 2. load balancing traffic going towards your servers from the internet
> > >
> > > IIRC, LinkSys is doing only the first.
> > > For loadbalancing your servers you will need to run bgp or to use
> > > tools like "Linkprof" from www.radware.com (I use this tool and I am
> > > very happy with it. I use 3 ISP with 4 links and 4 public address
> > > ranges)
> > >
> > > How does it work: Simple NAT.
> > > 1. For loadblalancig your users surfing the net, some connection will
> > > use ISP1 public address for NAT/PAT other users will use ISP2 NAT/PAT.
> > > 2. For loadbalancing you servers, "Linkproff" is DNS server which will
> > > do roundrobin loadblalancing, each time returning diffrent ISP public
> > > address.
> > >
> > > Same thing can be done with Linux/BSD but some custom scripting is needed
> > >
> > >
> > > On Thu, 24 Feb 2005 08:02:05 -0800, Ed Lui <edwlui@gmail.com> wrote:
> > > > Hi all,
> > > >
> > > > Linksys(Division of Cisco System) made a dual wan vpn router.
> > > > According to the documentation, it can load balance(weighted round
> > > > robin per users manual) between the 2 wan ports to utilize the full
> > > > banwidth of the 2 links(something like ppp multilink). Wonder if
> > > > someone knows how that works, I personally never tried it. But I was
> > > > told that wan1(2mbps downstream) and wan2(3mbps) together can reach
> > > > the destination with only ONE ip address(either wan1 or wan2) but get
> > > > 5mbps downstream. Can this really happen? How?
> > > >
> > > > Product link : http://www.linksys.com/products/product.asp?grid=34&scid=29&prid=639
> > > >
> > > > TIA,
> > > >
> > > > --
> > > > Edward
> > > > (A+, Net+, MCP, MCP+I, MCSE, CCNA, CCNP)
> > > >
> > > > _______________________________________________________________________
> > > > Subscription information may be found at:
> > > > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
> > > >
> > >
> > >
> > > --
> > > Best regards,
> > > Dan
> > >
> > > <a href="http://www.spreadfirefox.com/?q=affiliates&id=0&t=1">Get
> > > Firefox!</a>
> >
> > _______________________________________________________________________
> > Subscription information may be found at:
> > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
> >
>
> --
> Eric Cables
> Network Engineer, CCIE #12799
>
-- Edward (A+, Net+, MCP, MCP+I, MCSE, CCNA, CCNP)
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Mar 03 2005 - 08:51:25 GMT-3