Re: BGP Question

From: Scott Thornton (scthornton@gmail.com)
Date: Wed Feb 09 2005 - 00:06:49 GMT-3

Are you running an IGP? If your routers were peering via an IGP, I
think this might solve your problem...you might need to redistribute
into your IGP.

Just a thought...

On Tue, 8 Feb 2005 18:45:12 -0800 (PST), CCIE
<lkgilles_ccie@yahoo.com.au> wrote:
> I have a simple BGP question. I have this setup:
>
> R1----------R2-----------R3
>
> R1 is in AS100 and is peering to R3 in AS300, R2 is not participating in BGP. R1 is injecting several loopbacks into BGP. When I try to ping the loopbacks of R1 from R3, the packets never make it because R2 does not have a route for the loopbacks of R1. Is there any way to solve this without having R2 run BGP or have a default route?
>
>
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-- 
Scott C Thornton

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