From: ccie2be (ccie2be@nyc.rr.com)
Date: Wed Sep 29 2004 - 19:59:35 GMT-3
Hi John,
Here's how I understand this issue.
A dialer map command is like a frame relay map command in that it provides
layer 3 to layer 2 address resolution.
In the case of isdn, the phone # at the end of the dialer map command can be
thought of as a layer 2 address. Therefore, if you leave that # off the
dialer map command, how can the router know where to send ping replies?
I suspect that if you run "debug ip packet" on that router, you will see a
message "encap failed" meaning the router doesn't know where to send the
reply.
AFAIK, there are 2 ways to prevent a rtr from calling another rtr when using
dialer map commands:
A) Don't use the dialer-group # command.
b) Don't define interesting traffic.
If either of these things are NOT included then that router can't initiate a
call to the other router, but it can respond.
HTH, Tim
----- Original Message -----
From: "John Matus" <jmatus@pacbell.net>
To: "lab" <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Wednesday, September 29, 2004 6:11 PM
Subject: dialer map question
> i've got lab requirement that say that one router is not allowed to call
> another.... i know that you 'should' be able to leave the number of the
end
> of the dialer map statement:
> dialer map ip 1.2.3.4 name r4 bro
> but when i leave the phone number off the end i can ping that router from
the
> other side. i can only ping if i have 'dialer map ip 1.2.3.4 name r4 bro
> 8358661'
> what am i missing?
>
>
> Regards,
>
> John D. Matus
> MCSE, CCNP
> Office: 818-782-2061
> Cell: 818-430-8372
> jmatus@pacbell.net
>
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