From: ccie2be (ccie2be@nyc.rr.com)
Date: Tue Aug 03 2004 - 15:54:40 GMT-3
RE: IRB questionRichard,
You got it. This is from IE lab 3, task 1.9
All routers are physically connected to the same switch. R6 is connected to
sw1 via a 802.1q trunk and all the right vlans are allowed.
So, given this set up, should R1 be able to ping R3. I assume yes, but I'm
not 100% sure. Any ideas?
Thanks, Tim
----- Original Message -----
From: Richard Dumoulin
To: ccie2be ; Group Study
Sent: Tuesday, August 03, 2004 2:43 PM
Subject: RE: IRB question
Tim, you have 2 vlan's (16 and 36) in the same bridge domain so not sure if
bridging IP between both interfaces will work.
Also, how are R1 and R3 physically connected ? Into the same switch as R6 ?
One on VLAN 16 and the other on VLAN 36 ?
--Richard
-----Original Message-----
From: ccie2be [mailto:ccie2be@nyc.rr.com]
Sent: martes, 03 de agosto de 2004 20:20
To: Group Study
Subject: IRB question
Hi guys,
Here's the scenario.
R1 <--> R6 <-->R3
R6 has a BVI 1 configured and R6's fa1/0/0 is trunking. Here's the config:
bridge irb
interface FastEthernet1/0/0
no ip address
half-duplex
!
interface FastEthernet1/0/0.16
encapsulation dot1Q 16
bridge-group 1
!
interface FastEthernet1/0/0.36
encapsulation dot1Q 36
bridge-group 1
interface BVI1
ip address 136.7.136.6 255.255.255.0
bridge 1 protocol ieee
bridge 1 route ip
R6 can ping both R1 and R3, but R1 can't ping R3. There are no acl's or any
other obvious (at least to me) reasons for this. I assume R1 should be able to
ping R3. Can someone help me out?
Thanks in advanced, Tim
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