From: john matus (jmatus@pacbell.net)
Date: Fri Jun 04 2004 - 06:20:19 GMT-3
got a question regarding redistribution between igp's....
when you redistribute between, say, ospf and rip on the topology below
rip rip/ospf ospf
----R1--------------------------R2----------------------------R3---
is it the norm to apply a route-map on R2 that would specifically permit
routes from r1 or r3? for example, lets say you had a loopback address and an
ethernet subnet attached to R1 under rip, should you configure r2 as follows?
router ospf
redistribute rip sub route-map rip2ospf
route-m rip2ospf permit 10
match ip address 1
access-l 1 permit <lo0>
access-l 1 permit <e0> ?
it seems to me that you would only do something like this if you were
specifically trying to avoid redistributing specific routes, but in the case
that you are not denying any prefixes, what is the advantage, if any, by doing
this <avoiding routing loops possibly?....something else?>
i've always done my redistribution without the route-maps so i'm curious about
the ideology <i'm using ipexperts lab manual tonight and they go route-map
CRAZY!!!>
thanks in advance for your input!
Regards,
John D. Matus
MCSE, CCNP
818.782.2061 office
818.430.8372 mobile
jmatus@pacbell.net
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