From: Scott Morris (swm@emanon.com)
Date: Sun Oct 19 2003 - 00:04:03 GMT-3
The network statement within OSPF is used to define which interfaces are
participating in OSPF. With your RouterB, I assume you want all of your
interfaces to participate?
The statements haveno bearing on what the other side will or will not be
doing, or anything to do with the "specific-ness" of routes advertised.
They simply indicate which interfaces on the router will participate in
OSPF and be entered into the OSPF database. OSPF has methods from
there...
So yup, it'll work.
RouterB will ONLY be within area 2 by the way.
Scott Morris, CCIE4 (R&S/ISP-Dial/Security/Service Provider) #4713,
CISSP, JNCIS, et al.
IPExpert CCIE Program Manager
IPExpert Sr. Technical Instructor
swm@emanon.com/smorris@ipexpert.net
http://www.ipexpert.net
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Tan Chai Heng
Sent: Saturday, October 18, 2003 10:38 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: OSPF question
Hi,
Router A (OSPF - network 150.50.5.64 0.0.0.31 area 2)
Router B (OSPF - network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 2)
Router A is connected to Router B on serial back to back. B's i/f ip is
150.50.5.68 /27, A's 150.50.5.69 /27
My question is, Router A's OSPF network command has a different subnet
than
its interface subnet, will this config work?
Thanks!
CH
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