From: Dan Garrity (dgarrity@garrityfamily.com)
Date: Thu May 08 2003 - 02:03:03 GMT-3
You don't need to have a virtual link for routers R2 and R3. Since they
both belong to area 1 and R1 belongs to area 1 and area 0. If you had
any other areas on R2 or R3, then you would have to create a virtual
link. You would then use type 1 auth. to emulate a direct connect/tunnel
to area 0.
HTH
Dan
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Prakash S R
Sent: Wednesday, May 07, 2003 5:47 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: OSPF double authentication
Hi Group ,
Need some help here. Scenario is :
R1 has subinterfaces and point-to-point interfaces
as well.Other routers can't have subinterfaces.
R1 - R4 are in Area 0
R1 - R2
R3 are in area 1.
S0/0.1
R1-----|----FR-----R2
S0/1| |
| |----FR-----R3
FR
|
|
R4
Area 0 has to use type 1 authentication and Area 1 has
to use type 2 (MD5) authentication.In my home lab when
I created this scenario , since R1 has a single
subinterface, how do we add the authentication for
Area 1 and also authenticate the virtual link .Both
kind of authentication have to be on the same
subinterface on R1.
cheers !
Prakash SR
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