From: Hunt Lee (huntl@webcentral.com.au)
Date: Wed May 07 2003 - 03:52:28 GMT-3
Hello,
If your Area 0 is using authentication, then your Virtual LInk must be
authenticated as well... just treated the Virtual Link as an extension of
Area 0.
Please correct me if I'm wrong ;)
Regards,
Hunt
-----Original Message-----
From: frank.yu@japan.bnpparibas.com
[mailto:frank.yu@japan.bnpparibas.com]
Sent: Wednesday, 7 May 2003 3:32 PM
To: ohiohondo@columbus.rr.com
Cc: gitsyoung@yahoo.co.jp; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: authentication of virtul-link
I remember we had this discussion before where comes a conclution that
virtual link authentication has nothing to do with area0 authentication.
Not sure if it is right or not.
Internet
ohiohondo@columbus.rr.com@groupstudy.com - 05/07/2003 12:52 PM
Please respond to ohiohondo@columbus.rr.com
Sent by: nobody@groupstudy.com
To: gitsyoung, ccielab
cc:
Subject: RE: authentication of virtul-link
You have to authenticate. I do not believe you have to use the same level
of
authentication!!!
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of Tom
Young
Sent: Tuesday, May 06, 2003 8:16 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: authentication of virtul-link
Somebody said if the area 0 of ospf using authentication,
you have to have the virtul-link also use the same
authentication so that it could come into area 0 , like
the command below
area 5 virtual authentication-key 1 cisco
(for the md5 authentication)
But I tired to use the command withOUT authentication
parameter, it also connected with area 0 ,WHY?
Thanks alot
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