From: Daniel Free (danrose111@earthlink.net)
Date: Thu Apr 24 2003 - 18:40:15 GMT-3
Hi Jim,
Your very last statement is correct. Just think of how OSPF works on a
broadcast medium. There
will be a DR/BDR election process. Each non DR/BDR router (DRother) forms an
adjacency with
a DR and a BDR. In your sample you need to configure the virtual link to
Router A, in this case the BDR because it is attached to Area 0. Best of
luck.
Danny
----- Original Message -----
From: "ccie2be" <ccie2be@nyc.rr.com>
To: "Group Study" <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Thursday, April 24, 2003 3:47 PM
Subject: OSPF virtual link in combo with ethernet
> Hi group,
>
> I have 4 routers, A, B, C and D on an ethernet segment with each router's
> ethernet interface configured to be in OSPF area 1. Routers A and B are
ABRs
> between area 0 and area 1. Router C is also an ABR between area 1 and
area
> 2.
>
> When I configured a virtual link between rtr C and B it doesn't work - the
> output of show ip ospf virtual-link shows the v-link down. However, when
I
> configure the v-link between rtr C and A, it does work. I'm trying to
figure
> out why this is.
>
> On rtr C, I did a show ip ospf nei and saw the following:
>
> nei A Full/BDR
> nei B 2way/DRother
> nei D Full/DR
>
>
> Also, when I ping trace between rtr C and B, it takes 2 hops, not 1 even
> though both rtr C and B are on the same ethernet segment.
>
> Given the above info, is it possible that a virtual link across an
ethernet
> segment has to be between a router and the DR or BDR on the segment?
>
> Thanks in advanced. Jim
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