From: Georg Pauwen (pauwen@hotmail.com)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 19:11:50 GMT-3
Mark,
just try to build an OSPF network with e.g. area 1 as the backbone, you will
see it works just fine. Not much need to disagree about this, fact is it
works.
Regards,
Georg
>From: mdye@bevillcntr.org
>Reply-To: mdye@bevillcntr.org
>To: Joe <groupstudy@comcast.net>, "'Mark Miller'" <markmiller@alltel.net>,
> "'Sam Munzani'" <sam@munzani.com>, ccielab@groupstudy.com
>CC: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
>Subject: RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>Date: Mon, 17 Feb 2003 14:23:13 -0600
>
>I agree with Joe. OSPF has full knowledge of Area 0 being the backbone. All
>OSPF implementations must have an area 0.
>
>The current RFC for OSPF (2328) says:
> " 3.1. The backbone of the Autonomous System
>
> The OSPF backbone is the special OSPF Area 0 (often written as
> Area 0.0.0.0, since OSPF Area ID's are typically formatted as IP
> addresses). The OSPF backbone always contains all area border
> routers. The backbone is responsible for distributing routing
> information between non-backbone areas. The backbone must be
> contiguous. However, it need not be physically contiguous;
> backbone connectivity can be established/maintained through the
> configuration of virtual links.
>"
>
>Mark Dye
>
>
>At 02:34 PM 2/17/03 -0500, Joe wrote:
> >Please send us the link you refer to. I have to say that this is simply
> >not true. You will ONLY send routes from your area, whatever it may be,
> >into area 0, the backbone, so you can't just arbitrarily designate any
> >area as the backbone. It MUST be area 0.
> >
> >Joe
> >
> >-----Original Message-----
> >From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> >Mark Miller
> >Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 6:15 PM
> >To: Sam Munzani; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> >Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
> >Subject: Re: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> >
> >
> >The routing process in ospf has no concept that "area 0" is the backbone
> >area. You can make it any number you want. I remember reading
> >something on this. I'll try to dig it up and send you a link.
> >
> >Mark Miller
> >
> >
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
> >To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
> >Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
> >Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 12:56 PM
> >Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> >
> >
> >> Team,
> >>
> >> I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's
> >> opinion
> >on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
> >network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
> >network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
> >>
> >> When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
> >> all),
> >it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs
> >area 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with
> >area 555 configuration?
> >>
> >> What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading
> >> OSPF
> >RFC to figure out all technical details.
> >>
> >> Thanks,
> >> Sam Munzani
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