RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?

From: Chris Johnston (chris@routerguy.com)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 22:52:08 GMT-3


Um. You know, it would probably be best to go with an area 0 on your
new network. You could then use virtual-links to glue to two together.
In fact this is how you would attach two autonomous systems together.
Sam Halabi wrote an excellent white paper on OSPF. It's called OSPF
DESIGN GUIDE / Cisco Systems.

Chris Johnston <chris@routerguy.com>
714-306-5746
949-653-8819 (fax)

So tell me again. How do I set my laser printer to stun?

-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Sam Munzani
Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 10:56 AM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?

Team,

I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's opinion
on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.

When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
all), it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF
needs area 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device
with area 555 configuration?

What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading OSPF
RFC to figure out all technical details.

Thanks,
Sam Munzani



This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Mar 01 2003 - 11:06:26 GMT-3