From: Jerry (phase90@comcast.net)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 21:24:26 GMT-3
This thread, it seems to me is degenerating , maybe deprecating a better
word, into a design issue.
If not using an area 0, or the network is not big enough to require more
than 1 area, I would think OSPF would not be the routing protocol of choice,
no?
Jerry
----- Original Message -----
From: <tsiartas@ameritech.net>
To: 'Joe' <groupstudy@comcast.net>; 'Mark Miller' <markmiller@alltel.net>;
'Sam Munzani' <sam@munzani.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Monday, February 17, 2003 5:10 PM
Subject: RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> As far as I know
> Ospf works with out are 0.
> However ABRs can only be between are 0 and another area. There is no
> workaround to that other than the virtual-links.
> So basically you are limiting your design for summarization. And this is
> really the main disadvantage of ospf that can be a problem when merging
> companies, IS-IS could be an alternative as you can design as many tiers
> as you like with no area 0 requirement.
>
> t
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Joe
> Sent: Monday, February 17, 2003 1:35 PM
> To: 'Mark Miller'; 'Sam Munzani'; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
> Please send us the link you refer to. I have to say that this is simply
> not true. You will ONLY send routes from your area, whatever it may be,
> into area 0, the backbone, so you can't just arbitrarily designate any
> area as the backbone. It MUST be area 0.
>
> Joe
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Mark Miller
> Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 6:15 PM
> To: Sam Munzani; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: Re: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
>
> The routing process in ospf has no concept that "area 0" is the backbone
> area. You can make it any number you want. I remember reading
> something on this. I'll try to dig it up and send you a link.
>
> Mark Miller
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
> To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
> Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 12:56 PM
> Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
>
> > Team,
> >
> > I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's
> > opinion
> on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
> network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
> network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
> >
> > When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
> > all),
> it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs
> area 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with
> area 555 configuration?
> >
> > What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading
> > OSPF
> RFC to figure out all technical details.
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Sam Munzani
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