From: Jerry (phase90@comcast.net)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 20:18:06 GMT-3
From my limited understanding of the protocol the answer would be no. From
my readings on it,
it is said that the OSPF process id does not need to match on routers
participating in the OSPF routing. In other words 2 or more routers with
different OSPF process ids will form adjacencies
and router between areas.
Jerry
----- Original Message -----
From: Mustafa M Bayramov <spyroot@azeronline.com>
To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Monday, February 17, 2003 3:36 PM
Subject: ospf area 0.0.0.0 ?
> Group what about area 0.0.0.0 is it same 0 area for ospf process on
> Cisco router?
>
>
> Mustafa M Bayramov
>
> CISSP
> CCNP,CCDP,Cisco Security Specialist
> Network engineer and security analyst
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