From: Joe (groupstudy@comcast.net)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 16:34:56 GMT-3
Please send us the link you refer to. I have to say that this is simply
not true. You will ONLY send routes from your area, whatever it may be,
into area 0, the backbone, so you can't just arbitrarily designate any
area as the backbone. It MUST be area 0.
Joe
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Mark Miller
Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 6:15 PM
To: Sam Munzani; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
The routing process in ospf has no concept that "area 0" is the backbone
area. You can make it any number you want. I remember reading
something on this. I'll try to dig it up and send you a link.
Mark Miller
----- Original Message -----
From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 12:56 PM
Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> Team,
>
> I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's
> opinion
on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
>
> When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
> all),
it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs
area 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with
area 555 configuration?
>
> What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading
> OSPF
RFC to figure out all technical details.
>
> Thanks,
> Sam Munzani
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