RE: a question about ospf area

From: Sam Lai (slai@gggroup.net)
Date: Tue Dec 17 2002 - 13:49:07 GMT-3


I think you can place these "area 0" into two separate routing proccess on R3. And you can redistribute between these two instances. This way, the routes at "area 1" on R1-R2 looks like type7 routes to R4 and vise versa. What do you think?
 
Sam

        -----Original Message-----
        From: nobody@groupstudy.com on behalf of Joe Chang
        Sent: Tue 12/17/2002 9:37 AM
        To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
        Cc:
        Subject: Re: a question about ospf area
        
        

        It may work alright, but there will be routing irregularites. For example
        the routes advertised by one half of the split area will not be advertised
        into the other half by area 0 because of OSPF's routing loop prevention
        rule.
        
        ----- Original Message -----
        From: "csc david" <davidcsc2002@yahoo.com.cn>
        To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
        Sent: Monday, December 16, 2002 9:54 PM
        Subject: a question about ospf area
        
        
> Hello, all:
>
> if an ospf area is split by area 0, can that area still work alright?
>
> R1(area 1)R2(area 0)R3(area 0)R4(area 1)
>
> that is to say: does R1 see the routes about R4?
>
> Thanks
>
>
>
> ---------------------------------
> Do You Yahoo!?
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> .
        .
.



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