From: sliu@ttank.com
Date: Fri Sep 20 2002 - 19:14:47 GMT-3
It's a dangerous thing to do to re-use the same area ID's within a single
OSPF domain. Routers will be confused, disruptive routing and routing
loops might occur if you do this.
- Sean Liu
CCIE, CSS-1, AIX-CATE, CNE
CCSE, CCDP, CCNP, MCSE+I
Think Tank Systems, LLC
@
Sent by: nobody@groupstudy.com
09/20/2002 03:48 PM AST
Please respond to "Rick"
To: "Frank Maisano" <FrankM@netarch.com>, "Ccielab \(E-mail\)"
<ccielab@groupstudy.com>
cc:
bcc:
Subject: Re: OSPF area ID (big fight at work)
And if the Area id is not carried in the LSA header than it wouldn't
matter
when the ABR floods summary LSAs across area 0. The only place area ids
must
match is in the hello packet to form and adjacency between the
corresponding
ABR and internal router. The requirement is simply all non-area 0 area
must
talk to area 0....
----- Original Message -----
From: "Frank Maisano" <FrankM@netarch.com>
To: "'Rick'" <ccie_2003@hotmail.com> "Ccielab (E-mail)"
<ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Friday, September 20, 2002 3:45 PM
Subject: RE: OSPF area ID (big fight at work)
> Sounds correct to me. You can have 'router ospf 1' and then have the
same
> area configured for multiple subnets or you can have different areas
> configured. The router doesn't even need an 'area 0' statement unless
it
is
> an ABR. If it is just another internal router to a particular area
(not
> zero) it would not have an area0 at all.
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Rick [mailto:ccie_2003@hotmail.com]
> Sent: Friday, September 20, 2002 12:50 PM
> To: Ccielab (E-mail)
> Subject: OSPF area ID (big fight at work)
>
>
> Can someone tell me that I can use the same OSPF area multiple times
in
the
> same process as long it is talking to area 0. The area ID is not
carried
in
> the LSA header.
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