From: Frank Maisano (FrankM@netarch.com)
Date: Fri Sep 20 2002 - 16:45:52 GMT-3
Sounds correct to me. You can have 'router ospf 1' and then have the same
area configured for multiple subnets or you can have different areas
configured. The router doesn't even need an 'area 0' statement unless it is
an ABR. If it is just another internal router to a particular area (not
zero) it would not have an area0 at all.
-----Original Message-----
From: Rick [mailto:ccie_2003@hotmail.com]
Sent: Friday, September 20, 2002 12:50 PM
To: Ccielab (E-mail)
Subject: OSPF area ID (big fight at work)
Can someone tell me that I can use the same OSPF area multiple times in the
same process as long it is talking to area 0. The area ID is not carried in
the LSA header.
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