From: eric ong (ongyongk@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sun May 26 2002 - 11:31:09 GMT-3
Sorry, I should have given more info:
x.x.x.x -- R1(AS1) -- R2 --- R3(AS3)
/ \
(AS2)R4 R5(AS2)
- R2 is non-BGP
- R1 ebgp peers to R4
- R3 ebgp peers to R5
- R4 ibgp peers to R5
- R1 does 'network x.x.x.x'
- no sync on all
- IGP connectivity throughout (except for x.x.x.x)
If x.x.x.x doesn't go into IGP (via network or distribute), all BGP
routers will have x.x.x.x in their routing tables, but will not be
able to ping it as R2 (non-BGP) will not know about x.x.x.x.
So my question is: given that the requirement only states to
advertise x.x.x.x through BGP, must x.x.x.x be pingable from BGP
routers or from all routers (including non-BGP) or it doesn't have to
be pingable at all?
eric ong
--- Oliver Boehmer <oboehmer@cisco.com> wrote: >
> My guess is to assign the IP address (range) to an interface
> (loopback?) and advertise it using "network x.x.x.x" via BGP. So
> you can ping it from BGP routers.. It doesn't say anything about
> advertising it via IGP..
>
> oli
>
> At 19:30 26.05.2002 +0800, eric ong wrote:
> >Qn: On R1, assign and advertise x.x.x.x through BGP.
> >
> >x.x.x.x is not being advertised by any other protocols.
> >
> >So what is this question asking for?
> >
> >Just make x.x.x.x appear in all BGP routers' BGP table, don't care
> if
> >it's pingable?
> >
> >Or must the whole network (non-BGP routers too) be able to ping
> >x.x.x.x?
> >
> >If it's the latter, can I advertise x.x.x.x through IGP or must I
> >redistribute BGP into IGP on R1?
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