From: CCIE-Maillist (CCIE-Maillist@xxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 17 2002 - 18:49:15 GMT-3
Jeffery,
Okay. Thank you, that clears things up a bit.
I was reading in Prac. Studies V1 and it clearly states that area 0 is required
. I think this assumes that you have more than one area or just for good planni
ng as you don't know when you might need another area. But, if you do have more
than one area, everything must go through the backbone and that is area 0.
Now, any idea why my area 0 shows inactive but everything seems to distribute r
outes and communicate properly? I have yet to figure that one out.
Thanks for your help.
David
-----Original Message-----
From: Jeffery S Kimes [mailto:kimes@us.ibm.com]
Sent: Friday, May 17, 2002 4:42 PM
To: Davis, David
Subject: RE: RE: area 0 inactive - okay?
I think the backbone area is area 0! I think that the way that OSPF routes
packets is to an address within its area first, then if it has to go to
another area, it finds the quickest way to area 0, routes it across area 0,
then to it's destination area... So, if you are going to have more than 1
area, there has to be an area 0. Otherwise, if you are only going to have
1 area, you can use any number you want (though most people use 0).
"Davis, David"
<DDavis@foxgal.co To: Jeffery S Kimes/San Di
ego/IBM@IBMUS
m> cc:
Subject: RE: RE: area 0 inactiv
e - okay?
05/17/2002 02:34
PM
Ahh, yes, that rings a bell...
Maybe I am thinking of the "backbone", that everything has to go through
the backbone. Although the backbone is usually called area 0, maybe it
doesn't have to be.
I am reading in the Parkhurt book. it says-
"All non-zero ospf areas must have a connection to the backbone or Area 0
and area 0 must be contiguous."
That hints that the backbone doesn't have to be area 0 but, I'm still
reading...
But, then the question I am left with is if this router 6 in my area 5 has
a section for "
area 0", is it trying to tell me something is misconfigured by saying that
area 0 is inactive?
David
-----Original Message-----
From: Jeffery S Kimes [mailto:kimes@us.ibm.com]
Sent: Friday, May 17, 2002 4:24 PM
To: Davis, David
Subject: RE: RE: area 0 inactive - okay?
Correct me if I'm wrong... but I don't think that you HAVE to haven an
area 0. I would think that if you didn't have an area 0, that there would
be no routing between areas. In other words, you network would all have to
be the same area... ???
"Davis, David"
<DDavis@foxgal.co To: "Michael Canfield"
<ccnpccdp@hotmail.com>, <ca_vices@indiatimes.com>
m> cc:
<ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent by: Subject: RE: RE: area 0
inactive - okay?
nobody@groupstudy
.com
05/17/2002 01:36
PM
Please respond to
"Davis, David"
Michael,
Thanks for your help.
I know with OSPF everything has to have a connection to area 0.
In this configuration, is it okay that area 0 shows inactive? Or is the
fact that area 0 is inactive telling me that I need to "fix" something?
If I had some trouble with route redistribution, I would know that I need
to fix something but, as far as I can tell, it seems to work.
Thanks,
David
-----Original Message-----
From: Michael Canfield [mailto:ccnpccdp@hotmail.com]
Sent: Friday, May 17, 2002 3:18 PM
To: Davis, David; ca_vices@indiatimes.com
Cc: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: RE: area 0 inactive - okay?
Your R6 config shows no networks assigned to area 0, thats why area 0 shows
inactive on R6
>router ospf 1
>log-adjacency-changes
>area 0 authentication message-digest
>redistribute rip metric 20 metric-type 1 subnets route-map fromrip
>network 150.10.6.6 0.0.0.0 area 5
>network 150.10.60.0 0.0.0.255 area 5
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