Re: OSPF Virtual Link across Non-OSPF area?

From: Howard C. Berkowitz (hcb@xxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 10 2002 - 19:10:19 GMT-3


   
At 6:33 PM -0300 5/10/02, Carlos G Mendioroz wrote:
>Howard,
>isn't it "virtual links ARE always area 0" ?
>
>Areas define links aggregation, not routers, right ?
>So always both ends of a link are in the same area.
>For virtual links, this must be area 0.

No, virtual links are an exception (or maybe a blurry area is a
better term), since the original purpose was to have one end in a
non-backbone area that did not have physical connectivity to area
0.0.0.0. Logical connectivity is achieved by running the virtual
link through a second nonzero area, which must have transit
capability.

While this is the original intention -- that's from the mouth of John
Moy -- the more common use these days indeed has both ends in area
0.0.0.0, but the link passes through a nonzero transit area with two
connections to area 0.0.0.0.

>
>Carlos G Mendioroz <tron@huapi.ba.ar> LW7 EQI Argentina

--
"What Problem are you trying to solve?"
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*******************************************************************************
*
Howard C. Berkowitz      hcb@gettcomm.com
Chief Technology Officer, GettLab/Gett Communications http://www.gettlabs.com
Technical Director, CertificationZone.com http://www.certificationzone.com
"retired" Certified Cisco Systems Instructor (CID) #93005


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